Jump to content

SkySurveyBanner.jpg.21855908fce40597655603b6c9af720d.jpg

1 Divided by 2 = more than 2 halves?


Recommended Posts

You've rediscovered the Pythagorean doctrine of number (from about 500BC). First there is nothing, but it is only one nothing, so there is one. And the nothing together with the one make two. And the two together with the one make three...

You've re-stated it by saying that at first there was one and nothing else, which gave you a two and hence the possibility of halving. But you don't define "between". For the Pythagoreans the sequence is purely consecutive because of the way it's produced.

A more modern and mathematically rigorous version of the idea (which sorts out the problem of ordering) is the successor function.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Successor_ordinal

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Archived

This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.

  • Recently Browsing   0 members

    • No registered users viewing this page.
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

We have placed cookies on your device to help make this website better. You can adjust your cookie settings, otherwise we'll assume you're okay to continue. By using this site, you agree to our Terms of Use.